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JW Mason's avatar

That would be in the valuation term. Higher demand for shares means that the marginal holder is willing to accept a lower yield.

(I know it's a common usage, but I've always been puzzled by language like "more money coming into the stock market." By definition, flows of more in and out of a market are always equal -- for every buyer there is a seller.)

Steve Roth's avatar

This is a very intriguing construction. I reversed your formula's order as a way of thinking about it, FWIW:

Firms' market value is based on investors' estimate of future firm payouts.

Firms' payouts comprise a percentage of their profits.

Firm's profits comprise a percentage of their value added.

Firms' value-added comprises a percentage of GDP.

I'm not sure how much it helps, but the first line's assumption highlights what I think is a big (and pervasive) problem.

My claim: equity investors set the firm sector's market value based on estimated future Total Returns (TR) including capital gains accrued and accumulated over years, decades, liftimes. NOT based just on future payouts (either dividends or your sensible measure), net earnings, free cash flows, etc etc.

TR is the measure every brokerage site shows you up front, top and center when looking at your portfolio, at a given equity, or an ETF or mutual fund. (You have to dig around to find "yield-only" return.) Total Return is the foundation and basis of Modern Portfolio Theory.

Note that even Shiller's "Total Return CAPE" doesn't encompass this; it just assumes dividend reinvestment.

To keep this short I'll just highlight one stylized and ~unrecognized macroeconomic fact:

The household sector's standard-issue "yield-only" Return on Assets as embodied in the NIPAs (interest + dividends + rental & proprietors' profits) averages 5.2% since 1960.

HHs' Total Return on assets (adding accrued/accumulated holding gains to yield) averages 9.6%.

Piketty's r?

Thanks for listening...

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